I'm trying to build a table that uses a formula with a function in another database on the same server group. Enterprise Manager validates the formula, then when I save the table, an ODBC error pops up stating that the function is an invalid object name. I'm calling the function in the formula as follows: ([OtherDatabase].[dbo].[FunctionName](parameters)). Any ideas?
-- JakeAre you running at least sp2 ?
-PatP|||Yes, I'm running SP2.
-- Jake|||I know that certain situations do force you to use cross-database DML. But if you're creating a calculated field (is that what you're trying to do?) with a function in another database this means that both databases, AND THEIR NAMES (!!!) must go together, right? Why don't you move the function to the same database as the table? And if the function does reference objects in another database, then it would be transparent for the table. If you want to apply "reusability" and you happen to have a table(-s) in another database that has a calculated field that utilizes the same function, then you can just reference that function within the function wrapper.|||The Database I'm working on is a template that will be replicated for numerous individual projects, so I'm trying to reduce the number of locations the generalized Function code will be stored in. Otherwise, I was curious why I can put ([OtherDatabase].[dbo].[FunctionName](parameters)) in a View (for example) and get the desired result, yet have it not recognize the object when said code is placed in the Formula field (even after it supposedly validates the code). If I'm missing something syntax-wise, please let me know.
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